Does 1=0 ?
Say x=y
Therefore
x2 = xy.
So if you take the same from both sides.
x2 – y2 = xy – y2.
Now divide both sides by (x-y)
We get
x + y = y
Now as x=y we can say.
2y=y
Divide by y
We get 2=1
Subtract 1from both we get
1=0.
So what is the problem with the proof? Answer tomorrow
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Is the problem that by dividing by x-y you are in fact dividing by zero?
bingo
x=y, then x-y=0. Also halfway through you divided by (x-y). So that’s where you went wrong